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# Schrödinger Equation Derivation — Why the Kinetic Term is $\hbar^2/(2m)\,\nabla^2$
## Goal
Start from the **classical energy equation**
$$
E = \frac{p^2}{2m} + V
$$
and show how this becomes the **time-dependent Schrödinger equation**
$$
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + V\psi
$$
---
## 1. Start with classical mechanics
For a non-relativistic particle, total energy is
$$
E = \frac{p^2}{2m} + V
$$
where:
- \(E\) = total energy
- \(p\) = momentum
- \(m\) = mass
- \(V\) = potential energy
The term
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m}
$$
is just the usual classical kinetic energy.
Since
$$
p = mv
$$
we have
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m} = \frac{m^2 v^2}{2m} = \frac{1}{2}mv^2
$$
So the mysterious **divide by \(2m\)** is simply inherited from the ordinary formula for kinetic energy.
---
## 2. Introduce a wave
Quantum mechanics uses a **wavefunction** \(\psi(x,t)\).
Take a simple plane wave in 1D:
$$
\psi(x,t) = e^{i(kx-\omega t)}
$$
This is useful because derivatives acting on exponentials bring down constants.
---
## 3. Differentiate with respect to position
First derivative:
$$
\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial x} = ik\psi
$$
Second derivative:
$$
\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2} = -k^2 \psi
$$
So the second derivative returns the same wave multiplied by \(-k^2\).
---
## 4. Relate \(k\) to momentum
From de Broglie:
$$
p = \hbar k
$$
so
$$
k = \frac{p}{\hbar}
$$
Substitute this into the second derivative result:
$$
\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}
=
-\left(\frac{p}{\hbar}\right)^2 \psi
=
-\frac{p^2}{\hbar^2}\psi
$$
Rearrange:
$$
p^2 \psi = -\hbar^2 \frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}
$$
This is the key step:
> **Momentum squared acting on a wave becomes minus \(\hbar^2\) times the second derivative.**
So in operator form,
$$
\hat{p}^2 = -\hbar^2 \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}
$$
and in 3D,
$$
\hat{p}^2 = -\hbar^2 \nabla^2
$$
---
## 5. Put that into the energy equation
Start from
$$
E = \frac{p^2}{2m} + V
$$
Multiply through by \(\psi\):
$$
E\psi = \frac{p^2}{2m}\psi + V\psi
$$
Now replace \(p^2\psi\) by the differential form:
$$
E\psi
=
\frac{1}{2m}\left(-\hbar^2 \frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}\right) + V\psi
$$
So:
$$
E\psi
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2} + V\psi
$$
This is exactly where the factor
$$
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}
$$
comes from.
### Why the divide by \(2m\) stays there
Because the classical kinetic energy was already
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m}
$$
and the quantum substitution only changes **what \(p^2\) means**:
$$
p^2 \rightarrow -\hbar^2 \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}
$$
It does **not** change the prefactor \(1/(2m)\).
So:
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m}
\rightarrow
\frac{1}{2m}\left(-\hbar^2 \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}\right)
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2}
$$
---
## 6. Replace energy by a time derivative
For a wave,
$$
\psi(x,t) = e^{i(kx-\omega t)}
$$
differentiate with respect to time:
$$
\frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t} = -i\omega \psi
$$
Multiply by \(i\hbar\):
$$
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
=
i\hbar (-i\omega)\psi
=
\hbar\omega\psi
$$
But Planck says
$$
E = \hbar \omega
$$
so
$$
E\psi = i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
$$
Thus the energy operator is
$$
\hat{E} = i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t}
$$
---
## 7. Substitute into the equation
We had
$$
E\psi
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}
+
V\psi
$$
Replace $E\psi$ with $i\hbar \partial \psi / \partial t$:
$$
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{\partial^2 \psi}{\partial x^2}
+
V\psi
$$
This is the **1D time-dependent Schrödinger equation**.
In 3D it becomes
$$
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + V\psi
$$
---
## 8. What the second derivative means physically
The second derivative measures **curvature** of the wavefunction.
- Gentle curvature -> long wavelength -> small \(k\) -> small momentum
- Rapid wiggles -> short wavelength -> large \(k\) -> large momentum
Since kinetic energy depends on \(p^2\), it makes sense that it is linked to a **second** derivative.
So the Laplacian term is really the quantum version of kinetic energy.
---
## 9. Compact operator summary
The classical energy equation is
$$
E = \frac{p^2}{2m} + V
$$
Quantum substitutions:
$$
E \rightarrow i\hbar \frac{\partial}{\partial t}
$$
$$
p \rightarrow -i\hbar \nabla
$$
Therefore:
$$
p^2 \rightarrow (-i\hbar \nabla)^2 = -\hbar^2 \nabla^2
$$
and so
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m}
\rightarrow
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2
$$
Hence:
$$
i\hbar \frac{\partial \psi}{\partial t}
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\psi + V\psi
$$
---
## 10. Intuition in one sentence
The Schrödinger equation is basically the classical statement
$$
\text{Energy} = \text{kinetic} + \text{potential}
$$
rewritten so that **energy and momentum act as differential operators on a wavefunction**.
---
## 11. Tiny memory aid
A good way to remember the kinetic term is:
1. Classical kinetic energy is
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m}
$$
2. In quantum mechanics
$$
p \rightarrow -i\hbar \nabla
$$
3. Therefore
$$
\frac{p^2}{2m}
\rightarrow
\frac{(-i\hbar \nabla)^2}{2m}
=
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2
$$
That is the whole story.
---
## 12. One last link to \(F=ma\)
Newton's law tells you how **position** changes with time.
Schrödinger's equation tells you how the **wavefunction** changes with time.
So it is fair to think of it as the quantum analogue of a fundamental equation of motion — even though mathematically it comes more directly from the **energy equation** than from \(F=ma\).
---
## Possible next page
A natural next step is to derive the **time-independent Schrödinger equation**
$$
-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\nabla^2\phi + V\phi = E\phi
$$
by assuming
$$
\psi(x,t) = \phi(x)e^{-iEt/\hbar}
$$
which turns the problem into an eigenvalue equation.